2023年初中学业水平考试试卷

英语

第一部分 听力（共两节，20分）

听录音，根据各题要求选择最佳答案，并将答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。每项内容读两遍。

第一节（共5小题；每小题1分，共5分）

听下面5段对话，根据你听到的内容选出相应的图片。

1. ______ 2. ______ 3. ______ 4. ______ 5. ______

第二节（共15小题；每小题1分，共15分）

听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。

听第6段材料，回答第6至8题。

6. Which room will David clean first?

A. The bathroom. B. The bedroom. C. The living room.

7. Who will clean the kitchen?

A. David. B. Grandma. C. Nobody.

8. What can be found on the table?

A. Some strawberries. B. Some bananas. C. Some apples.

听第7段材料，回答第9至11题。

9. Where does the woman want to go?

A. The art museum. B. The science museum. C. The history museum.

10. How long will it take the woman to walk there?

A. About 30 minutes. B. About 25 minutes. C. About 15 minutes.

11. How will the woman go there?

A. By bus. B. By train. C. By subway.

听第8段材料，回答第12至14题。

12. How many coins has Jack collected?

A. 200. B. 210. C. 220.

13. Why does Jack like co llecting coins?

A. The size of the coins. B. The shape of the coins. C. The history behind the coins.

14. Who has an influence on Jack’s hobby?

A. His friend. B. His aunt. C. His mother.

听第9段材料，回答第15至17题。

15. What is wrong with the woman?

A. She is late for work. B. She can’t find her son. C. She is angry with her son.

16. Why did the woman’s son fail the exam?

A. He didn’t go to school any more.

B. He spent too much time on the computer.

C. He didn’t have enough time to fi nish the exam.

17. Who is the man?

A. Leo’s father. B. Leo’s teacher. C. Leo’s uncle.

听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。

18. Where did the students meet for the school trip?

A. In front of the school hall.

B. Outside the school library.

C. At the gate of the museum.

19. What did the students do at the end of the trip?

A. They watched a bike-riding performance.

B. They bought many gifts from the gift shop.

C. They took many photos outside the museum.

20. How did the students feel about the school trip?

A. Happy. B. Crazy. C. Tired.

第二部分语言知识运用（共15小题；每小题1分，共15分）

阅读短文，从短文后各题所给的三个选项（A、B和C）中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。

A walk in the park

Isha fell back on her so fa strongly and found herself getting terribly upset. Her living room was too hot and 21 , and she couldn’t bear to stay there one more second. She 22 up suddenly and decided that she had to go outside for some fresh air. Maybe her neighbo ur Georgia would want to 23 with her.

“Mum,” she called, “can I go outside and play with Georgia?”

“Absolutely not!” her mum replied. “Even though it looks 24 now, it’s going to rain later and I don’t want you to get wet.”

Taking no care of her mum’s warning, Isha stuck to her25. Her mum had gone upstairs to do some work in her office, so Isha had the 26 to sneak (偷偷地走;溜) out of the house and call out Georgia. Luckily, she 27 .

The girls met in the street and chatted happily 28 they walked. Before long, Isha wondered if they had 29 —they were in a small unknown park, and none of the buildings nearby looked familiar. Things got even 30 when she found some heavy clouds rolled in (滚滚而来). The first raindrops fell, and the girls decided to go 31 .

Isha’s 32 was beating fast as she tried to sneak back into the house without being 33 by her mum. However, to Isha’s surprise, her mum was waiting 34 in the living room for her.

“Come on,” said her mum in peace, “let’s get you into some dry clothes before you catch a 35 .”

21. A. relaxing B. boring C. bright

22. A. stood B. gave C. stayed

23. A. play B. dance C. read

24. A. terrible B. nice C. dark

25. A. agreement B. promise C. decision

26. A. message B. money C. chance

27. A. failed B. succeeded C. refused

28. A. when B. if C. because

29. A. come out B. got lost C. set off

30. A. better B. funnier C. worse

31. A. on B. back C. around

32. A. drum B. wing C. heart

33. A. noticed B. doubted C. required

34. A. excitedly B. angrily C. patiently

35. A. cold B. ball C. bus

第三部分 阅读理解（共15小题；每小题2分，共30分）

阅读短文，从每题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。

A

Kids in British schools can do many sports. In most British schools, children do two hours or more of sports every week, and they can choose from between 15 and 20 different sports. Here are several students talking about their school sports.

“I’m Craig Hopkins, and I’m in Year 11 at Park School. I love playing football and cricket. My favorite sport is rowing. There is a big lake near my school, and we go there once a week to row. I’m in the school team and two or three times a year we row against teams from schools in other parts of the country.”

“Hi, I’m Julia in Year 11 at River School. Though I’m not in any team, I can swim, play tennis and baseball at school. I love orienteering (越野识途比赛) most! In orienteering, you have to run and run—but you have to find where to go, too! You have a map and a compass, and you have to get to a place as fast as possible. It’s great fun—even when it’s raining!”

“I’m Brendan. I have played handball with Newcastle Tigers for nearly two years. It’s a very enjoyable team sport. In summer we played on the beach. This year I won the best player of the year award for my outstanding training attitude and hard work. I also joined a handball club at school and some other school sports too.”

36. What’s the favorite sport of Craig?

A. Rowing. B. Football. C. Orienteering. D. Handball.

37. Why could Brendan win the award?

A. He won many competitions. B. He had a gift for handball playing.

C. He joined a professional handball club. D. He had a good training attitude and worked hard.

38. What do the listed students have in common?

A. They come from the same school. B. They show no interest in team sports.

C. They are members of the school teams. D. They can choose many kinds of school sports.

B

I’m about to begin my fifth season of tree planting. Each year, around this time, I have mixed feelings about the job. After enjoying the warmth of my home for the winter months, I begin to miss the challenges of life in the bush.

In the early hours of the morning, we join our team—normally 6 to 12 men and women. Some of us will be covered in suncream and dirt. Our trucks travel deep into the woodlands. When we step out of the trucks, we’re faced with a hillside that has just been logged (砍伐) and is covered with piles of logs (原木) and branches.

We quickly fill our bags with hundreds of tiny trees. Skilled tree-planters t reat this more like a sport than a job, and competition fills the air. Once our bags are full, we jump from log to log. We fall many times, always pushing ourselves to go faster.

Daily pains get to us all. We feel uncomfortable in the heat, deal with cold at night and suffer from anger. But beautiful moments are always waiting. I remember, lying in my tent one night, listening to a pack of wolves howling in the distance. The season afterward I came across a bobcat that was sitting and calmly staring at us.

I’ve worked with a 62-year-old tree-planting legend (传奇人物) called Grant—believed to have planted seven million trees in 40 years. Once he got caught in a rockslide and broke his back. It took him years to recover, but he came back stronger than ever. His passion (热爱) for the job reminds me of what I love about it.

Tree planting is a laboratory of self-growth. You master your mind and face the worst and the best in your nature. A new version of yourself awaits at the end of the experience. And after sleeping in a tent all summer, you learn never to take your bed for granted. So value what you have had and face the challenges in your life with great passion.

39. Why does the author plant trees?

A. To be well-known. B. To make a living.

C. To challenge himself. D. To learn planting skills.

40. Which of the following could best describe Grant?

A. Honest. B. Quiet. C. Humorous. D. Strong-willed.

41. What does the underlined part in the last paragraph probably mean?

A. You need to be yourself. B. You can be more careful.

C. You should be thankful for what you own. D. You should take your bed with you next time.

42. What is the best title for the text?

A. Crying in the Bush B. Planting with Passion

C. A Lesson from Grant D. A Mistake in the Wild

C

An electronic book—known as an e-book—is the text and art of a book published in digital form. Some say the convenience of a digital book beats the benefits of reading a real book, that is, a book printed on paper. Is that true?

A famous writer once wrote, “You can find magic wherever you look. Sit back and relax. All you need is a book!” Back then, of course, he meant a book printed on paper, but today that’s not the only way to read one. People can choose to read a real book, or they can read an e-book on an e-reader device (设备) or a computer. Many people like reading e-books because they are convenient and easy to carry.

However, a real book can never be replaced. There is nothing better than the feel of a real book, from the weight of it in your hand to the satisfaction of turning each page. It’s part of the experience of reading—just like going to a library or bookstore and turning the pages of a book freely. Scrolling (滚屏) through a device isn’t the same. And not every kind of book translates well to digital. Plus, e-books can require expensive devices that need to be charged (充电), as well as Internet access to download books. That’s not always possible or convenient. A printed book, however, doesn’t have to be connected to be enjoyed. What’s more, when reading a real book, you can feel a pleasure of the mind, which will help you get information and remember it more effectively. And it contributes towards developing the communication skills and unlock our imagination.

In 2022, sales of e-books in the US totaled about $ 1 billion, while real books sales hit $ 9.1 billion. In a survey, 30% of Americans who read books chose e-books, while most still prefer real books. Besides, research shows that understanding improves when people read books in print, rather than in digital form.

43. Why do some people like reading e-books?

A. E-books provide more understanding.

B. E-books are convenient and easy to carry.

C. E-books increase printing costs and paper use.

D. E-books benefit people with reading difficulties.

44. What can we know from paragraph 3?

A. People are too busy to read a real book.

B. Children are into reading e-books nowadays.

C. It is enjoyable to read real books in a library.

D. All the real books can be translated well to digital.

45. What’s the purpose of listing numbers in the last paragraph?

A. To stress the importance of reading books.

B. To show the popularity of reading real books.

C. To give examples of American best-selling books.

D. To compare the differences of the two reading habits.

46. What’s the main idea of the text?

A. Reading habits are changing.

B. Reading books is a good habit.

C. Real books benefit us in many ways.

D. Nothing compares to reading an e-book.

D

There are millions of teenagers using social media every day. Although some people think social media is a positive thing, many are worried about the negative influences it can have on young people.

Many teenagers agree that social media helps them stay connected to their friends and make new friends from around the world. More and more teenagers are willing to share their life and thoughts online. Thanks to advances in technology, how teenagers make friends and communicate with each other has changed greatly.

However, social media also has many disadvantages, one of which is that some parents believe social media makes it harder for families to spend time together. They say that things on the Net seem super appealing, and that their kids can’t take their eyes off the screen. As a result, teenagers pay no attention to the rest of their family.

Another serious problem is that social media makes bullies (霸凌者) easier to reach their goals. A great many people have experienced cyberbullying—bullying that takes place online. So how can teenagers protect themselves if the cyberbullying has taken place? Gwen Taylor, an expert from a charity, which works to end online bullying, suggests, “The first thing to do is to tell a trusted adult about what is going on.” “If someone posts content that frightens you, you can report it to the social media platform. You’d better keep the screenshot (屏幕截图) of the behavior because this will help you to report it and help others to help you,” says Taylor.

Perhaps the more effective way is to try to be a good digital citizen. How you act online is just as important as how others treat you. Good digital citizens use online spaces positively, which means treating everybody online with kindness and respect. Respect other people’s feelings and don’t be mean (刻薄的). “If you have shared something you shouldn’t have, it’s never too late to say sorry and fix the situation—such as taking the post down. If you notice somebody is being cyberbullied, consider reporting it and getting in touch with the person being treated badly to make sure he is OK,” Taylor advises.

47. What’s the advantage of social media according to the passage?

A. It helps teenagers make more friends.

B. It enables teenagers to do more exercise.

C. It makes teenagers focus on their schoolwork.

D. It offers teenagers chances to stay with families.

48. What does the underlined word “appealing” in paragraph 3 probably mean?

A. Interesting. B. Tiring. C. Traditional. D. Scary.

49. What should teenagers do when faced with cyberbullying?

A. Believe it’s not a big deal. B. Keep the problem a secret.

C. Never surf the Internet again. D. Tell a trusted adult what happened.

50. Which statement would the author most probably agree with?

A. Teenagers are too shy to share their opinions online.

B. All the teenagers have learned the rules of being safe online.

C. Teenagers should be responsible for their words and action s online.

D. It’s wise to keep silent when you find your friend is being bullied online.

第四部分 情景交际（共两节，15分）

第一节（共5小题；每小题1分，共5分）

根据对话内容，从方框内的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。

A: Hey, Linda. You look so worried. 51

B: Yes, it’s my dog Lulu. She didn’t feel well this morning.

A: 52 Have you taken her to the animal hospital?

B: Yes, my father has taken her there. 53

A: Not yet. But I’m planning to keep one. A cat, maybe.

B: 54

A: Cats are always gentle, and they don’t need much space since they’re small.

B: It’s true. But you still need to be responsible and take care of it very carefully.

A: 55 Having a pet is far more than just playing with it.

第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，共10分）

根据下面的对话情景，在每个空白处填上一个适当的句子，使对话的意思连贯、完整。

(Sam and Joe are talking on the phone)

Sam: Hello, who’s that?

Joe: Hi, Sam. 56 .

Sam: Hi, Joe. What’s up?

Joe: You know the graduation day is coming. I want to buy my classmates some gifts to show my thanks. They have helped me a lot for the past three years. But I don’t know what to buy. 57 ?

Sam: How about giving each of them a handwritten thank-you card? Trust me!They will love it.

Joe: Sounds great! 58 ?

Sam: Yes, I am free tomorrow.

Joe: Would you like to buy the cards with me?

Sam: Of course. 59 ?

Joe: How about 10 a.m. at our school gate?

Sam: No problem. See you then.

Joe: 60 .

第五部分 词语运用（共两节，25分）

第一节（共10小题；每小题1分，共10分）

用括号中所给单词的适当形式完成句子（每空仅限1个单词）。

61. Written between 1937 and 1949, The Lord of the Rings is one of the best-selling ______ ever written. (novel)

62. —It is said that elephants are the ______ existing land mammals (哺乳动物) on the Earth.

—But elephant populations have fallen sharply. (large)

63. June 8th was ______ by the UN in 2009 as World Oceans Day. (name)

64. —Do you know Hangzhou will hold the 19th Asian Games from September 23 to October 8?

—Yes, it will be the ______ city in China to host the event. (three)

65. Look! A deer is ______ beside the road and eating grass. (stand)

66. The players all have ______ in their coach. (confident)

67. The Earth is getting more and more ______ as the global population is still growing. (crowd)

68. To many Chinese people, the process of ______ the Spring Festival dinner together is more important than the dinner itself. (prepare)

69. Over 180 North American teenagers ______ part in a “cloud dialogue”, learning about the Sanxingdui Ruins in China several weeks ago. (take)

70. —He is so humorous and kind. All his students love him.

—______. He is my favorite teacher. (exact)

第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，共15分）

阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。

If you live in the cities in England, there will be a great chance that you may meet a fox in real life. Some animals need special habitats (栖息地) or food. But foxes can live in all kinds of amazingly different 71 (place) such as deserts, mountain s and cities. A city like London can be really busy and 72 (noise), but it still has quiet corners where foxes can sleep. It also has fox food such as mice and foods dropped by people.

Recently some people in cities have already 73 (see) foxes close at hand, but they never seem scared. Why is that? They are 74 smart that they can even remember all the safe corners where they can escape. If a fox thinks it can run to its safe exit 75 (fast) than you can approach (接近), it will probably just sit down and wait. They won’t waste energy running off unless it really 76 (become) necessary.

However, it’s 77 (usual) better not to feed foxes. But do enjoy78(watch ) them. They are beautiful interesting animals and lots 79 people enjoy them around. After all, seeing foxes is 80 exciting reminder of our connection to nature.

第六部分 书面表达（15分）

你校英文报正在征稿，主题是“Form healthy eating habits”。请根据以下征稿启事，写一篇短文投稿。

注意：

1.词数80左右，题目已给出，不计入总词数；

2.可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯；

3.文中不得出现反映考生信息的真实人名、地名等内容。

Form healthy eating habits

_______________________________________________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________________________________________

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2023年初中学业水平考试试卷评分说明及作答示例

英语（120分）

第一部分听力（共两节，20分）

1-5 ECBDA 6-10 CBABA 11-15 ACCBC 16-20 BCBAA

第二部分语言知识运用（共15小题；每小题1分，共15分）

21-25 BAABC 26-30 CBABC 31-35 BCACA

第三部分阅读理解（共15小题；每小题2分，共30分）

36-38 ADD 39-42 CDCB 43-46 BCBC 47-50 AADC

第四部分情景交际（共两节，15分）

第一节（共5小题；每小题1分，共5分）

51-55 ACEFD

第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，共10分）

评分说明：

一等（8~10分）

能根据情景准确理解对话场景，理清人物对话关系，表意清晰，语义连贯，语言得体；能在补全对话过程中使用准确的词语、句式和时态。

二等（5~7分）

能根据情景基本理解对话场景，理清人物对话关系，表意基本清晰，语义较连贯，语言基本得体；在补全对话过程中存在部分词语、句式和时态错误。

三等（0~4分）

未能根据情景理解对话场景，未能理清人物对话关系，表意不清晰，语义不连贯，语言不得体；在补全对话过程中存在严重词语、句式和时态错误。

评分细则：

1.在答案符合题意的前提下，在单句中首字母未大写扣一分；在单句中语法错误、单词拼写错误或因书写潦草导致的字母或单词难以辨认一处扣一分（累计最多扣一分）；

2.与以下答案不一致，但符合题意，且表达正确，应在阅卷时讨论后酌情给分。

作答示例：

56. This is Joe (speaking); Joe speaking; It’s Joe (speaking)

57. Can/Could you give me some advice/suggestions; Do you have any ideas/advice/suggestions

58. Are you free tomorrow; Do you have time tomorrow

59. When and where shall/ will we meet

60. See you

第五部分词语运用（共两节，25分）

评分说明：

1.大小写不正确或书写潦草导致的字母或单词难以辨认不给分；

2.如考生写出与参考答案不同但与题目要求相符的单词，且形式正确，应在阅卷时讨论后酌情给分。

作答示例：

第一节（共10小题；每小题1分，共10分）

61. novels 62. largest 63. named 64. third 65. standing

66. confidence 67. crowded 68. preparing 69. took 70. Exactly

第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，共15分）

71. places 72. noisy 73. seen 74. so 75. faster

76. becomes 77. usually 78. watching 79. of 80. an

第六部分书面表达（15分）

One possible version,

Form healthy eating habits

Getting into good eating habits benefits us a lot. For one thing, it helps us build up our body. For another, it gives us the energy we need to make the most of the day.

In order to form health y eating habits, we’d better take a variety of foods and not be picky. It’s a good choice for us to eat vegetables, tofu, and meat that are all rich in nutrients. At the same time, we should avoid fast food and eat fewer foods high in fat, salt and sugar.

“You are what you eat”, as the old saying goes. So try to form good eating habits and stay healthy.